Corporate & Compliance Digest April 06, 2026

We are delighted to share this week's AKP Corporate & Compliance Weekly Digest. Please feel free to write to us with your feedback at info@akandpartners.in.

1.               Labour & Employment Law

1.1.        MOLE notifies extension of ESI coverage to Meghalaya districts under Social Security Code, 2020

The Ministry of Labour and Employment (“MoLE”) has issued a notification under the Code on Social Security, 2020, designating April 1, 2026 as the effective date for extending Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) coverage to specified districts in Meghalaya, including West Khasi Hills, South West Khasi Hills, Eastern West Khasi Hills, and East Jaintia Hills. From this date, employers and employees in these areas will be required to make contributions under the ESI scheme, with eligible employees entitled to benefits administered by the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation under the relevant provisions of the Code.

1.2.        MOLE notifies extension of ESI coverage to Manipur districts effective April 1, 2026

MoLE has issued a notification extending Employees’ State Insurance (“ESI”) coverage to additional districts in Manipur, with effect from April 1, 2026, as part of the phased expansion of social security coverage under the Code on Social Security, 2020. Following the notification, eligible establishments and employees in the notified districts will be brought under the ESI framework, requiring mandatory contributions while enabling access to medical, disability, and other statutory benefits administered by the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation.

1.3.        MOLE notifies extension of ESI coverage to Meghalaya districts effective April 1, 2026

MoLE has issued a notification extending ESI coverage to specified districts in Meghalaya with effect from April 1, 2026, under the Code on Social Security, 2020, requiring eligible establishments to undertake mandatory contributions while enabling employees to avail medical care and other social security benefits administered by the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation.

1.4.         MOLE notifies revision of VDA for scheduled employments under Central Minimum Wages effective April 1, 2026

MoLE has issued an order revising the Variable Dearness Allowance (VDA) for employees engaged in scheduled employments under the Central Minimum Wages framework, with effect from April 1, 2026, in line with periodic adjustments ed to the Consumer Price Index to offset inflationary impact. Pursuant to the order, revised wage rates comprising basic wages and VDA will be applicable to workers across central sphere establishments, requiring employers to update payroll structures and ensure compliance with the notified minimum wage thresholds.

1.5.        Government notifies revision of minimum wages and VDA in Madhya Pradesh effective April 1, 2026

The Government of Madhya Pradesh has issued a notification revising minimum wages along with Variable Dearness Allowance (VDA) for employees engaged in scheduled employments, with effect from April 1, 2026, in line with periodic adjustments ed to the Consumer Price Index to account for inflation. Pursuant to the notification, revised wage rates comprising basic wages and VDA will apply across categories of workers, requiring employers to update wage structures and ensure compliance with the prescribed minimum wage thresholds under applicable labour laws.

1.6.        India notifies revision of minimum wages in Karnataka effective April 1, 2026

The Government of Karnataka has issued a notification revising minimum wages for employees engaged in scheduled employments, with effect from April 1, 2026, incorporating updated Variable Dearness Allowance (VDA) ed to changes in the Consumer Price Index to account for inflation. Pursuant to the notification, revised wage rates based on skill categories and geographical zones will be applicable across the state, requiring employers to update wage structures and ensure compliance with the prescribed minimum wage thresholds under applicable labour laws.

1.7.       India notifies Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026 The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has notified the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026, introducing amendments to the existing legal framework governing the rights and welfare of transgender persons in India. Pursuant to the notification, the amended provisions seek to strengthen non-discrimination safeguards, streamline recognition processes, and enhance access to welfare measures and entitlements, requiring relevant authorities and establishments to align their policies and practices with the updated statutory framework.

1.8.        India introduces SHe-Box portal for effective implementation of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013

The Ministry of Women and Child Development has introduced the Sexual Harassment Electronic Box (SHe-Box) portal as a digital governance initiative to strengthen the implementation of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013. Pursuant to this initiative, the portal provides a centralised platform for filing and monitoring complaints of sexual harassment at the workplace, enabling streamlined redressal, improved accountability, and enhanced oversight, while requiring employers and relevant authorities to integrate compliance mechanisms with the digital system.

2.            Securities & Capital Markets

2.1.        NSE issues circular on submission of Margin Trading Facility compliance certificate for half year ended 31 March 2026

National Stock Exchange of India Limited (“NSE”) has directed all trading members who have obtained approval to offer Margin Trading Facility (“MTF”) to submit a Margin Trading Facility compliance certificate for the half year ended 31 March 2026, in line with paragraph 4.10.3 of Securities and Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”) circular dated 30 December 2024. Trading members who have commenced Margin Trading Facility must have their Margin Trading Facility books audited and submit a compliance certificate signed by a chartered accountant in the prescribed format (Annexure I), while those who have approval but have not commenced Margin Trading Facility must file a self-certified declaration in the format at Annexure II. Submission is to be made only through the ENIT module (ENIT-New-Compliance > Compliance > MTR > MTR Compliance Certificate submission) by 30 April 2026, with user instructions provided in Annexure III.

2.2.         NSE issues circular on changes to Securities Transaction Tax rates with effect from 01 April 2026

NSE has notified its members that, pursuant to the Finance Act, 2026 (assented to on 30 March 2026), the Securities Transaction Tax (“STT”) rates on certain derivatives transactions have been revised with effect from 01 April 2026. Specifically, the rate on sale of an option in securities has increased from 0.10 per cent to 0.15 per cent (zero point five per cent), the rate on sale of an option in securities where the option is exercised has increased from 0.125 per cent (zero point one two five per cent) to 0.15 per cent (zero point one five per cent), and the rate on sale of a futures contract in securities has increased from 0.02 per cent (zero point zero two per cent) to 0.05 per cent (zero point zero five per cent), while STT rates on cash segment and certain unit transactions remain unchanged. The circular reproduces the updated STT rate table, identifies the party liable to pay in each case, and asks trading members to ensure appropriate charging of STT on transactions executed on or after 01 April 2026 and to disseminate the changes to their clients.

2.3.        NSE issues circular on quarterly cyber incident reporting under Cyber Security and Cyber Resilience Framework

NSE Limited has reminded regulated entities and trading members of the requirements under Securities and Exchange Board of India’s Cyber Security and Cyber Resilience Framework circular dated 20 August 2024 and corresponding exchange circulars to report cyber incidents on a quarterly basis. For the quarter ending 31 March 2026, regulated entities and trading members must submit their Quarterly Cyber Incident Report through the ENIT portal (ENIT-NEW-TRADE > Trade > Incident Report > Quarterly Report Submission) by 15 April 2026, using the process and templates described in Annexure 1. Non‑submission or delayed submission will attract monetary penalties and progressive disciplinary action up to disabling of trading facilities as detailed in Annexure 2 to the circular, and members have been provided contact details for regional offices and central helpdesk for any assistance.

2.4.           NSE issues circular on reporting of Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning applications by market intermediaries

NSE Limited has called upon all active trading members to submit information on Artificial Intelligence (“AI”) and Machine Learning (“ML”) applications and systems they offer or use, in accordance with Securities and Exchange Board of India’s circular dated 04 January 2019 and earlier NSE reporting circulars. Trading members using algorithm software must report AI‑ML details on a half‑yearly basis (for the period 01 October 2025 to 31 March 2026), while other trading members must report annually (for the period 01 April 2025 to 31 March 2026), with submissions to be made via NEW ENIT > COMPLIANCE > “ML and AI” > ML and AI Details between 01 April 2026 and 15 April 2026. Reporting is mandatory for all active trading members irrespective of whether they use AI‑ML systems (requiring “NIL” reporting where not used), and failure to submit within the prescribed timelines will be treated as non‑compliance with consequences as per Exchange circular NSE/INSP/70746 dated 10 October 2025.

2.5.          CDSL issues communiqué on annual submission of depository participant tariff / charge structure

Central Depository Services (India) Limited (“CDSL”) has reiterated its requirement that all depository participants (“DPs”), including branch DPs, submit their tariff / charge structure to CDSL by 30 April every year through the online ‘easiest’ login facility. The circular sets out the step-by-step online process for DPs to create or modify tariff details on CDSL’s website and further requires DPs to email a PDF copy of the underlying tariff document to CDSL (masters@cdslindia.com) using a prescribed file naming convention, including in cases where there is no change in tariff and the “No change in tariff” option is selected. Non‑submission or delayed submission by 30 April 2026 will attract a penalty of INR 500 in accordance with the penalty structure specified in Annexure 11.1 of Chapter 11 of the DP Operating Instructions.

2.6.           CDSL issues communiqué on freezing of demat accounts for KYC not uploaded with KRA

CDSL has reminded depository participants of the Securities and Exchange Board of India circular dated 11 August 2023 on simplification of Know Your Client (“KYC”) processes and risk management at KYC Registration Agencies (“KRAs”), and its earlier communiqué granting extension for KYC uploads. Beneficial owners whose KYC attributes are not verified by KRAs will not be permitted to carry out any transactions, and where any demat account holder’s KYC remains unverified by 30 April 2026, the concerned demat account / beneficial owner identification number (“BO ID”) is required to be frozen for both debit and credit using freeze reason code “27 – Account holder related – KYC non-compliant”. Depository participants have been asked to ensure strict compliance and to coordinate directly with the respective KYC Registration Agencies for any client KYC status issues.

2.7.    CDSL issues communiqué on UNSC ISIL (Da’esh) and Al-Qaida sanctions list update and related UAPA obligations

CDSL has informed depository participants that, based on an email from Securities and Exchange Board of India, the United Nations Security Council (“UNSC”) Committee concerning ISIL (Da’esh) and Al-Qaida has updated its sanctions list by adding one individual, Hamidah Nabagala (QDi.439), as set out in UNSC press note SC/16325 dated 30 March 2026. Depository participants are advised to comply with obligations under Section 51A of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 by following the Central Government order of 02 February 2021, including scanning all existing and future accounts against the latest UNSC sanctions lists, processing any de‑listing requests through the Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of External Affairs, and guiding listed persons on the Ombudsperson mechanism for de-listing. The circular also emphasises that updated sanctions and consolidated lists, as well as related narrative summaries and press releases, are available on UNSC and Securities and Exchange Board of India websites, and participants are expected to monitor these sources regularly for changes.

2.8.    NSDL issues circular introducing One-Time Interest Waiver Scheme for settlement of outstanding payments

National Securities Depository Limited (“NSDL”) has introduced a One-Time Interest Waiver Scheme to facilitate settlement of long-pending outstanding dues of eligible participants through a one-time waiver of interest on such dues, without any waiver of the principal amount. The scheme is open from 01 April 2026 to 30 June 2026 and is available where outstanding dues pertain to periods prior to 31 January 2026, subject to full payment of the principal in a single tranche within the scheme period and continued timely discharge of current and future obligations. Accounts under legal proceedings such as insolvency or liquidation may be considered on a case-by-case basis, and NSDL reserves broad rights to interpret, modify or withdraw the scheme, which is expressly characterised as a one-time, time-bound, non-precedential administrative measure.

3.             Information Technology & Data Protection

3.1.         Government invites stakeholder comments on draft amendments to IT Rules, 2021

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology has issued a notice inviting stakeholder comments on the proposed amendments to the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, aimed at strengthening intermediary compliance with government-issued clarifications, advisories, and directions, and enhancing regulatory oversight of digital media content. The draft amendments introduce provisions mandating adherence to Ministry-issued guidelines as part of due diligence obligations, clarify applicability of content regulation provisions to intermediaries hosting news and current affairs content, and expand the scope of the Inter-Departmental Committee, with stakeholders invited to submit comments by April 14, 2026.

3.2.          CERT-In flags multiple vulnerabilities in Google Chrome for Desktop (CIVN-2026-0170)

The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (“CERT-In”) has issued Vulnerability Note CIVN-2026-0170 highlighting multiple high-severity vulnerabilities in Google Chrome for Desktop, affecting versions prior to 146.0.7680.177 for Linux and 146.0.7680.177/178 for Windows and Mac. The identified vulnerabilities, including use-after-free, heap buffer overflows, and improper implementations in components such as WebGL, ANGLE, and V8, could enable remote attackers to execute arbitrary code, bypass security restrictions, or access sensitive information by luring users into opening specially crafted web content, necessitating immediate application of vendor-released security updates to mitigate potential system compromise, data theft, or service disruption.

3.3.           CERT-In flags critical vulnerabilities in QNAP products (CIVN-2026-0169)

CERT-In has issued Vulnerability Note CIVN-2026-0169 highlighting multiple critical vulnerabilities in QNAP products, including QVR Pro, QuNetSwitch, QuRouter, and QuFTP service versions prior to specified releases. The identified vulnerabilities, arising from issues such as missing authentication, command injection, improper restriction of communication channels, and cross-site scripting (XSS), could enable remote attackers to gain elevated privileges, execute arbitrary code, bypass security restrictions, access sensitive information, or trigger denial-of-service conditions, necessitating immediate application of vendor-recommended patches to mitigate risks of system compromise, unauthorized access, and service disruption.

3.4.           CERT-In flags multiple vulnerabilities in NGINX (CIVN-2026-0168)

CERT-In has issued Vulnerability Note CIVN-2026-0168 highlighting multiple high-severity vulnerabilities in NGINX Open Source and NGINX Plus versions within specified ranges. The identified vulnerabilities, including heap-based buffer overflows, integer overflows, out-of-bounds read, NULL pointer dereference, and improper authorisation and input neutralisation, could enable attackers to execute arbitrary code, cause memory corruption, manipulate data, or trigger denial-of-service conditions, necessitating prompt application of vendor-recommended security updates to mitigate risks of system compromise, unauthorised access, and service disruption.

3.5.           CERT-In flags multiple vulnerabilities in Google Chrome for Desktop (CIVN-2026-0167)

CERT-In has issued Vulnerability Note CIVN-2026-0167 highlighting multiple high-severity vulnerabilities in Google Chrome for Desktop, affecting versions prior to 146.0.7680.164/165 for Windows and Mac and prior to 146.0.7680.164 for Linux. The identified vulnerabilities, including heap buffer overflows, out-of-bounds reads, use-after-free issues, and integer overflows across components such as WebAudio, WebGL, CSS, Dawn, WebGPU, and Fonts, could enable remote attackers to execute arbitrary code, access sensitive information, or trigger denial-of-service conditions by inducing users to visit specially crafted web pages, necessitating immediate application of vendor-released updates to mitigate risks of system compromise and service disruption.

3.6.           CERT-In flags multiple vulnerabilities in Mozilla products (CIVN-2026-0166)

The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) has issued Vulnerability Note CIVN-2026-0166 highlighting multiple high-severity vulnerabilities in Mozilla products, including Firefox, Firefox ESR, and Thunderbird versions prior to specified releases. The identified vulnerabilities, arising from issues such as use-after-free, memory safety flaws, incorrect boundary conditions, and JIT miscompilation across components including WebRender, JavaScript engine, networking, and graphics modules, could enable remote attackers to execute arbitrary code, perform spoofing attacks, bypass security restrictions, or trigger denial-of-service conditions, necessitating prompt application of vendor-recommended security updates to mitigate risks of data theft, unauthorized access, and complete system compromise.

3.7.           CERT-In flags Cisco IKEv2 denial of service vulnerability (CIVN-2026-0165)

CERT-In has issued Vulnerability Note CIVN-2026-0165 highlighting a high-severity vulnerability in the Internet Key Exchange version 2 (IKEv2) feature affecting Cisco IOS Software, IOS XE Software, Secure Firewall ASA Software, and Secure FTD Software. The vulnerability, arising from improper parsing of IKEv2 packets, could allow an unauthenticated remote attacker to trigger a memory leak and cause a denial-of-service (DoS) condition by sending specially crafted packets to targeted devices, necessitating prompt application of vendor-recommended security updates to mitigate risks of service disruption and potential impact on system availability.

3.8.         CERT-In flags multiple vulnerabilities in NetScaler ADC and NetScaler Gateway (CIVN-2026-0159)

CERT-In has issued Vulnerability Note CIVN-2026-0159 highlighting multiple high-severity vulnerabilities in NetScaler ADC and NetScaler Gateway, affecting specified versions across ADC, Gateway, and FIPS/NDCIPP builds. The identified vulnerabilities, including out-of-bounds read and race condition issues, could allow attackers to access sensitive information or compromise session integrity by sending specially crafted network requests, necessitating the prompt application of vendor-recommended updates to mitigate risks of unauthorised access, system compromise, and service disruption.

4.               Corporate Law & MCA

4.1.           MCA Revises DIR‑3 KYC Requirements for Directors

The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (“MCA”) has announced updates to the DIR‑3 KYC framework to simplify compliance for company directors. Under the revised rules, directors holding a DIN as on 31^st March of a financial year will now be required to file the DIR‑3 KYC Web Form once every three consecutive financial years, instead of annually, unless there is a change in personal details. Any changes to a director’s mobile number, email ID or residential address must be updated within 30 (thirty) days through the same web form, along with the applicable fee. The revised DIR‑3 KYC Web Form replaces the earlier DIR‑3-KYC and DIR-3-KYC-Web forms (“existing forms”) and will come into effect from March 31^st, 2026, with draft or pending existing forms being cancelled and required to be refiled under the new process.

5.               Tax

5.1.          India extends timeline for issuance of TDS certificates for December 2025 quarter

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Circular No. 2/2026 extending the due date for issuance of Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) certificates under Section 203 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the quarter ending December 31, 2025, to March 31, 2026, in view of technical difficulties faced by deductors on the e-filing portal. Pursuant to the circular, TDS certificates issued within the extended timeline will be deemed to have been issued within the prescribed period, providing compliance relief to deductors affected by system-related delays.

5.2.        India notifies Income-tax (Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 55/2026 effective April 1, 2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 55/2026 introducing the Income-tax (Amendment) Rules, 2026, with effect from April 1, 2026, to amend provisions under the Income-tax Rules, 2026. Pursuant to the notification, amendments have been made to Rule 128 to refine the scope of the General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR), including providing grandfathering relief for income arising from transfer of investments made prior to April 1, 2017, while clarifying that anti-avoidance provisions will continue to apply to tax benefits arising on or after such date, thereby requiring taxpayers to reassess structuring and compliance positions under the revised framework.

5.3.         India notifies Income-tax (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 45/2026 effective March 31, 2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 45/2026 introducing the Income-tax (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026, with effect from March 31, 2026, applicable to returns filed for Assessment Year 2026–27. Pursuant to the notification, amendments have been made to the Income-tax Rules, 1962, including revisions to return filing provisions under Rule 12 such as permitting reporting of income from two house properties in specified forms, thereby streamlining compliance requirements and necessitating taxpayers to align disclosures with the updated return formats.

5.4.      India notifies Income-tax (Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 46/2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 46/2026 introducing amendments to the Income-tax Rules, 2026, as part of the transition to the new direct tax framework under the Income-tax Act, 2025. Pursuant to the notification, the amendments refine procedural and compliance-related provisions, forming part of the broader rationalisation and simplification of tax rules aimed at enhancing clarity, standardisation, and ease of compliance for taxpayers and stakeholders.

5.5.           India notifies Income-tax (Fourth Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 47/2026 effective March 31, 2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 47/2026 introducing the Income-tax (Fourth Amendment) Rules, 2026, with effect from March 31, 2026, applicable to returns filed for Assessment Year 2026–27 onwards. Pursuant to the notification, Form ITR-3 has been substituted with a revised format in Appendix II of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, with updated disclosure and reporting requirements aimed at improving accuracy, transparency, and compliance in income tax return filing.

5.6.           India notifies Income-tax (Fifth Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 48/2026 effective March 30, 2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 48/2026 introducing the Income-tax (Fifth Amendment) Rules, 2026, with effect from March 30, 2026, to further amend the Income-tax Rules, 1962. Pursuant to the notification, amendments include substitution of prescribed return forms, including Form ITR-5, along with updated disclosure requirements, aimed at improving accuracy, standardisation, and compliance in return filing for applicable taxpayers.

5.7.           India notifies Income-tax (Sixth Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 49/2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 49/2026 introducing the Income-tax (Sixth Amendment) Rules, 2026, to further amend the Income-tax Rules, 1962 as part of the transition to the Income-tax Act, 2025 framework effective April 1, 2026. Pursuant to the notification, the amendments form part of the ongoing rationalisation and restructuring of tax rules aimed at simplifying compliance, enhancing reporting standards, and aligning procedural requirements with the modernised direct tax regime.

5.8.           India notifies Income-tax (Seventh Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 50/2026 effective March 31, 2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 50/2026 introducing the Income-tax (Seventh Amendment) Rules, 2026, with effect from March 31, 2026, applicable to returns filed for Assessment Year 2026–27 onwards. Pursuant to the notification, Form ITR-7 has been substituted with a revised format in Appendix II of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, incorporating updated disclosure and reporting requirements for specified entities, thereby requiring taxpayers falling within its scope to align filings with the revised return structure.

5.9.           India notifies Income-tax (Eighth Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 51/2026 effective March 31, 2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 51/2026 introducing the Income-tax (Eighth Amendment) Rules, 2026, with effect from March 31, 2026, applicable to returns filed for Assessment Year 2026–27 onwards. Pursuant to the notification, Form ITR-V in Appendix II of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 has been substituted with a revised format for verification of income tax returns, aimed at streamlining return verification processes and enhancing accuracy and compliance in e-filed returns.

5.10.        India notifies Income-tax (Ninth Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 52/2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 52/2026 introducing the Income-tax (Ninth Amendment) Rules, 2026, to further amend the Income-tax Rules, 1962 as part of the transition to the Income-tax Act, 2025 framework effective April 1, 2026. Pursuant to the notification, the amendments form part of the continued rationalisation and restructuring of tax rules aimed at simplifying compliance, enhancing reporting standards, and aligning procedural requirements with the modernised direct tax regime.

5.11.        India notifies Income-tax (Tenth Amendment) Rules, 2026 under Notification No. 54/2026

CBDT, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 54/2026 introducing the Income-tax (Tenth Amendment) Rules, 2026, to further amend the Income-tax Rules, 1962 as part of the transition to the Income-tax Act, 2025 framework effective April 1, 2026. Pursuant to the notification, the amendments form part of the continuing rationalisation and restructuring of tax rules aimed at simplifying compliance, enhancing reporting standards, and aligning procedural requirements with the modernised direct tax regime.

6.               Regulatory Enforcement and Compliance

Authority	Name of Company / Individual	Amount of Penalty Imposed	Contravention
Registrar of Companies (ROC), Bangalore	Minance Investment Advisors Private Limited	INR 4,00,000/- Lakhs (Rupees Four Lakhs only)	The reporting in the Board's Report was false based on the deposition of the directors that there were no board meetings and that they have not attended any meeting. Penalty imposed under Section 454 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)	Mangalam Global Enterprise Limited	INR 1,03,67,500/- (Indian Rupees One Crore Three Lakh Sixty Seven Thousand and Five Hundred only)	Violations of Regulation 30(1) and 30(2) of the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, relating to the non-disclosure of material events. The proceedings were disposed of without admitting or denying the findings after the applicants paid a consolidated settlement amount.

Disclaimer

The note is prepared for knowledge dissemination and does not constitute legal, financial or commercial advice. AK & Partners or its associates are not responsible for any action taken based on its contents.

For further queries or details, you may contact:

Mr Anuroop Omkar

Founding Partner, AK & Partners

info@akandpartners.in